Isn't voluntary intoxication a defense to specific intent crimes? And aren't all "murder" crimes specific intent?

https://preview.redd.it/piah7mu1p8be1.png?width=420&format=png&auto=webp&s=b4e63004e6ebd543141d9d91d25197cf93be47fd

Can someone set me straight? I knew there was no premeditation so I eliminated A. I didn't love C as an answer but thought that voluntary intoxication was a defense to specific intent crimes, and that the four "murder" crimes require specific intent?