This is ridiculous question spits in everything I thought was obvious
DUUUUDE. Ok. obviously this is testing between overflow incontinence and urge incontinence.
But HOLY CRAP. THere has NEVER Been a single question in the history of the universe that ever said "urgent, unexpected sensation of the need to urinate" and it NOT BE GOD DAMN MTHRFKING URGE INCONTIENCE.
THat's such a SPECIFIC description that it is NOTHING else!! HOLY FKING GOD!!!
So HOW TEH FK could it be Overflow incontinence due to bladder outlet obstruction!?!?! Sure his post residual volume isn't normal (200mL) due to BPH but it isn't that high. And overflow incontence never causes that "urgent sensation urinate".
Someone give me a punching bag. HOW in the fuck am I supposed to learn when you keep changing and flipping the rules randomly like this?!??!
I Don't know anyyyyything ='[[[[[[[[[. Nothing is ever consistent ='[[[[[[[
A 72-year-old man with hypertension comes to the office because of a 7-month history of postvoid dribbling and urinary incontinence associated with urgent, unexpected sensations of the need to urinate. His medications are lisinopril and aspirin. His blood pressure is 160/80 mm Hg. Examination shows normal external genitalia and a moderately enlarged, firm prostate. His postvoid residual volume is 200 mL. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's urinary incontinence?
Highlighted Answer:
- A) Bladder outlet obstruction (
- B) Detrusor instability
- C) Detrusor underactivity
- D) Functional incontinence
- E) Urinary tract infection
- F) Weak external urethral sphincter