ICJ asked to broaden definition of genocide over 'collective punishment' in Gaza

https://news.sky.com/story/icj-asked-to-broaden-definition-of-genocide-over-collective-punishment-in-gaza-13271874

The Irish government says it is "concerned" that a "narrow interpretation of what constitutes genocide" leads to a "culture of impunity in which the protection of civilians is minimised". Israel has previously rejected similar accusations.

Ireland is to ask the International Court of Justice (ICJ) to broaden its definition of genocide - claiming Israel has engaged in the "collective punishment" of people in Gaza.

An intervention will be made later this month, deputy prime minister Micheal Martin said, and will be linked to a case South Africa has brought under the United Nations' Genocide Convention.

Mr Martin said the Irish government is "concerned" that a "narrow interpretation of what constitutes genocide" leads to a "culture of impunity in which the protection of civilians is minimised".

The Dublin administration's "view of the convention is broader" and "prioritises the protection of civilian life", he added.

What do you think? Should the definition be broadened?

If one wonders about Ireland's motives, it's worth noting that they also made a second petition:

The Dublin government has also approved an intervention in The Gambia's case against Myanmar under the same convention.

I'm not familiar enough with the Myanmar scenario, except that the death toll is similar ~50k and also against Muslims.

Is there bias afoot or sincere concern? It has been reported in the past that SA's case against Israel is biased because they're linked with Hamas: https://www.fdd.org/analysis/op_eds/2024/03/01/hamas-south-african-support-network/